IRA conversion to Roth IRA in 2009
There appears to be much confusion and few answers to the question, If you did a partial conversion to Roth in 2009 and did not take the 2009 MRD, the conversion, you may not have done so legelly. Since 2009 distributions were not required, the question has caused confusion. Anyone have the answer?
Permalink Submitted by Alan Spross on Tue, 2010-03-16 00:24
Since there was no RMD for 2009 for anyone, a conversion in 2009 was no problem as long as the income or marital filing status requirements to convert were met.
Permalink Submitted by ron dombcik on Tue, 2010-03-16 13:49
Thank you. I agree that makes sense but wondered if IRS has made any acknowledgement of it being acceptable?
Permalink Submitted by Alan Spross on Tue, 2010-03-16 20:19
I am not aware of any specific announcement, but since there clearly is no RMD for 2009, there does not appear to be any need for one.