401(K) RMD with After Tax Contributions
When calculating the RMD for the above, I take it you must include the after tax contributions… right?
Since there is “basis” for these contributions, I take it the after tax contributions are pro-rated over the life of the 401k much like an IRA that has tax basis?
Are there any other special rules for after tax contributions in 401k’s?
Thanks,
Glenn
Permalink Submitted by Alan Spross on Thu, 2012-01-05 22:32
Yes, the RMD will include pro rated pre tax and post tax amounts. The 1099R issued by the plan will show the gross distribution and the taxable amount in Box 2a. There is no Form 8606 required as there is for IRA distributions that include non deductible contributions because the plan is responsible for the book keeping for employer plans, not the taxpayer.
There are no special rules, but if the plan is rolled over to an IRA, Form 8606 would be filed for the IRA showing the after tax amount on line 2 that was rolled over to the TIRA.
If the after tax amount in the plan is significant, it would be wise to consider how best to transfer the after tax amount into a Roth IRA where it will earn tax free and not be subject to future RMDs. If there are pre tax IRA balances now, converting directly from the plan will avoid pro rating with the IRA. In either case, for any year a Roth conversion is done, the RMD must be fully satisfied before converting additional distributions to the Roth IRA.
And if there is any highly appreciated employer shares in the plan, NUA should be considered. However, NUA is not possible after the first RMD year.
Permalink Submitted by ShipsnGiggles on Mon, 2015-01-12 23:06
dollars in a 401(k) are not used in detrmining the account value used to determine the RMD amount?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2015-01-13 00:01
No such scenario since the entire balance (pre tax plus post tax) as of a year end is used to calculate the following year RMD.
Permalink Submitted by Shawn Jones on Fri, 2017-11-10 17:41
Since the 2014 Rulings, may an RMD for a 401k account be taken with only the after-tax dollars in the account (assuming there is a sufficient balance of after tax money to meet the RMD)~?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Fri, 2017-11-10 18:15