Roth Conversion prorata rules
My client has no IRAs, and makes more than the Roth IRA contribution limit, so she contributed post tax in Jan, then converted it to a Roth.
Then, recently, I advised her to take an inservice withdrawal from her 401k and roll to an IRA. Is it correct that I’ve now brought on the pro rata rules and the $5k conversion will be subject to tax?
If yes, then secondly, if she had not converted, she’d have $5k basis in her IRA. From the conversion, does paying tax on the $5k somehow increase her basis in the IRA beyond the $5k by the amount of tax paid, or does the tax paid only pave the way for all the earnings made on the $5k to be distributed at 59 1/2 (and 5yrs) tax free as it’s now a Roth?
What steps can I advise her to take to somehow reverse (or at least neutralize) the tax impact? For example, should I advise that she redirect $5k of her Roth 401k contribution to her pretax 401k between now and year end?
Any way to neutralize this, or did I just create unnecesary tax for suggesting the inservice withdrawal and IRA rollover before 12/31/13?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2013-06-18 20:45
Permalink Submitted by Thomas Ferry on Thu, 2013-06-20 12:56
Thank you. When is the deadline for recharacterizing? Also, just to be clear on the issue of basis, let’s use your example of a $95k rollover. If I don’t recharacerize, what the client will have is $5k in a Roth IRA and an IRA worth $95k that has basis of $4750. Correct?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Thu, 2013-06-20 16:54
The deadline to recharacterize a 2012 conversion is 10/15/2013 provided taxpayer filed their 2012 taxes by 4/15 OR filed an extension. You are correct about what the two IRA types would be composed of if the conversion is retained. Taxes would be due on 4,750 of the conversion and there would also be that same amount of basis remaining in the TIRA.