Pre-1987 post tax IRA distribution
I turned 70 1/2 this year so will need to do an RMD this year (or by April 2019) . I Have several roll-over IRAs and one traditional IRA. In 2005, I rolled a 401(k) into two new IRAs, one of which consisted only of about $40,000 of after tax contributions, $25,000 of which was pre-1987 and $15,000 post-1986. I haven’t commingled any other funds in this IRA but over time it has increased in value to $120,000. I understand that for most after tax monies I will be required to take the after tax amounts out as a pro rata share of my overall IRA balances.
My question, though, is whether I can take the $25,000 which is pre-1987 and roll it into a Roth without being subject to the pro-rata requirement? I gather I could do such if I were today making a 401k) to roll-over IRA conversion but my conversion was in 2005 before the IRS seems to have dealt with this issue.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Wed, 2018-07-25 19:50
Once these funds were rolled into a TIRA, they lose their identity as grandfathered pre 87 AT contributions to be separated from the rest of the IRA balance. Therefore, distributions from the TIRA are all subject to the pro rate rules reported on Form 8606. This has always been the case for IRA distributions. However, you did acquire additional basis in your TIRA accounts and should file Form 8606 to report the additional basis on line 2. You will need to file the 8606 for all distributions including RMDs to recover your total IRA basis and therefore a portion of your distributions will be non taxable. You could have made direct rollovers from the 401k to your Roth IRA starting in 2008 and 100k income limits were lifted in 2010. So there was no way to avoid TIRA commingling of basis prior to 2008.
Permalink Submitted by james olson on Thu, 2018-07-26 15:20
I was afraid of this although it seems somewhat unfair that a method is now allowed which wasn’t in 2005 and the result is I don’t get any benefit from the pre-1987 money (beyond the pro rata share).
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Thu, 2018-07-26 17:26
If you have enough basis in your TIRA, it might make doing incremental Roth conversions viable since only a portion will be taxed. That said, you must complete your RMD before doing any conversion, and while the RMD and conversion will have the same % as taxable, it would likely have been better to convert before RMDs started as your taxable income would have been lower then.
Permalink Submitted by james olson on Mon, 2018-07-30 21:01
Alan,Thank you for the explanation. I am not sure I completely understand the mechanics of the RMD. I have several IRAs (three roll-over, one traditional and a Roth held with two mutual fund companies, as well as a TSP account) and will have to withdraw about $100,000 initially. The after-tax total is about $60,000 or 3% of the total. I assume I can take the $100,000 from any of the non-Roth IRAs. Correct? I would like to put the 3% in the Roth. So, can I take $3,000 once I receive the RMD and put it in the Roth or do I need to have a direct distribution of that amount to the Roth? Thanks for your thoughts.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Mon, 2018-07-30 23:27
Permalink Submitted by Bruce Steiner on Sun, 2018-08-05 01:29
A retired Federal employee who earns a tiny amount from a new job has a TSP account, and a small traditional IRA with no basis. Does this mean she can transfer her traditional IRA into her TSP account, and then make nondeductible IRA contributions of her earnings from her new job (or from her spouse’s earnings, up to $6,500 a year) and do backdoor Roth conversions of these contributions? Can she make these IRA contributions out of her spouse’s earnings even if he doesn’t make any IRA contributions of his own?
Permalink Submitted by james olson on Tue, 2018-07-31 19:03
Very interesting idea. If I understand it, I can put all of the post-tax money, both the pre-87 $24,000 and post-86 $36,000 for a total of $60,000 into a Roth if I follow the steps you enumerated. A couple of mechanical questions: (1) Does it matter which of the roll-over IRAs I leave the $60,000 in when I shift the bulk to the TSP? Right now it is isolated in one of the roll-over IRAs but it would work better for me to leave it in another of the roll-over IRAs which is with a mutual fund company where I now have my Roth. (2) When I start the process it may take a couple of weeks for all of the $$ to be transferred to and be received by the TSP. If I have left $60,000 in one of the IRAs it may earn $50 or so in the transitional period (assuming it’s in a money market fund) before the larger transfers are completed. How do I account for that? Could I just designate that $60,000 as a new Roth effective as of the date I transfer the rest of the money out?(3) For calculating the the post-tax pro rata share, do I include the TSP blance or is it completely off to the side?Thanks again for your thoughts.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Sun, 2018-08-05 02:55
Permalink Submitted by james olson on Mon, 2018-10-01 16:39
Alan, Thanks for your very helpful thoughts about transferring pre-tax IRA $$ to TSP to isolate the post-tax IRA portion and allow its conversion to a Roth. I have taken my 2018 RMD from the IRAs and am now ready to do the transfers and ask for the RMD from the TSP. However, I just read an article by a CPA that says those who are 70.5 or older (I’m 71) who are receiving RMDs cannot transfer $$ to a TSP account. I read the relevant TSP pubs and saw no such language and called the TSP and was told there was no such restriction. Is it correct that there is no such restriction? Also, as I proceed with this plan, now that I have withdrawn the RMD for 2018 from the IRAs, does the order of the remaining steps (withdrawing the TSP RMD and transferring the IRAs into the TSP) make any difference? Thaks again.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2018-10-02 02:56
Permalink Submitted by james olson on Tue, 2018-10-02 20:05
Yes, definitely questions. The purpose of the transfer of the pre-tax IRA balances to the TSP was to allow for the post-tax money to be isolated and put into a Roth. If as you say the 8606 language means that the RMD will be assumed to contain the 60k of post-tax money does that mean that I cannot put that 60k into a Roth? If so, there is no reason to transfer the IRA funds to the TSP and I will just take the small percent of after-tax money from each year’s RMD.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2018-10-02 23:04