TIRA conversion, ROTH recharacterization

My Scenario:

Retired 63 years old. Each year my IRS estimated quarterly payments are figured to include around a $70K conversion into a ROTH.

If every year in January I convert $400K out of my TIRA by moving 9 different mutual funds into ROTH.

In late November, I look and see which funds did the best in the past 11 months to equal $70K. The rest I recharacterize back to the TIRA which is done during early December of the same year I converted.

January of the next year or at least 31 days later I do a new tax year conversion with another $400K out of the same TIRA with the same estimated quarterly payments to pay for another $70K staying in the ROTH by late November and recharacterizing the poorer performers back.
into the TIRA.

Question is this tax strategy [b]legal[/b] and if not why and if OK can this strategy be improved upon. The reason I’m keeping at $70K so that I’m right at the edge of the 15% to 25% tax bracket.

TIA…..Jack



Jack,
The strategy is fine. You are not making any disallowed reconversions because you are not reconverting in the same year as your recharacterizations or within 30 days, if later.

Of course you must correctly report the conversions and recharacterizations on your return, and that includes an explanatory statement. Your situation is simpler than many others, however, becaue you will complete your recharacterizations in the same year as the conversion and receive all the 1099R and 5498 forms in the following January, so the IRS can easily see what you have done. In addition, there is no need to extend or amend your tax returns due to recharacterizations done closer to the deadline.

I assume you are filing jointly because of your stated top of the 15% bracket, but if the 70,000 is correct, you must not have much other taxable income or your TIRA includes a hefty basis of non deductible contributions or rollovers. Perhaps you are delaying your SS retirement claim to keep your conversions from resulting in 85% of your SS income being included in AGI and the increased marginal tax rate that would cause. That would also be a good strategy if you are in good health, particularly if you are the high income earner of the couple.



Thanks Alan for the response.

One more question:

This year I did 3 conversions March, June and Oct. last week. The total amount was $143,005.10 and now it’s worth as of noon today worth 114,629.71 which includes 3 mutual funds and 3 ETF’s(all Vanguard).

I was thinking of getting out of all 6 funds/etfs and placing into the ROTH Vanguard prime money market fund. Even though the initial investment is in a different investment fund(prime money market) [b]does that create a problem[/b] when I get the paper work from Vanguard and recharacterize in late November.

How does Vanguard know how much to recharacterize or put back in TIRA if the monies is sitting in Vanguard Prime Money Market???????

Do they have the capabilities to see what the initial 6 funds/etfs were worth when I closed them and moved the monies into prime money market. I presume they do plus I imagine there would be any gains I made on the prime money market on the 6 funds/etfs moved back to TIRA also.

It would probably be much easier to leave all 6 funds/etfs as they are but I’m watching the 6 funds/etfs conversion move lower every day.

What would be your advice on this. Either way would be capable of doing or what???????

TIA………Jack



Your actual holdings at the time of recharacterization do not matter. The earnings allocation, in this case negative, follow the same formula regardless of changes of holdings, and Vanguard should have no trouble doing the calculation.

The small gains in the MM fund will slightly offset the losses in the calculation. I am not sure if your 3 conversions were into separate Roth accounts or into a single Roth, but the calculation method is the same and applies separately to each account. Obviously, if each conversion is made to a separate account, there is no real calculation required since the difference in the account balance simply determines the earnings allocation.

Actually, the recharacterization process is easier for Vanguard if everything is in the MM fund. That way, they do not have to ask you how much of each of the remaining funds will migrate back to the TIRA.

Again, investment considerations almost always trump tax issues, so if you need to limit your losses to sleep at night, then by all means do the exchange to the MM fund. You could also change to the MM fund now and if the market starts to recover, exchange back into equity funds prior to doing the recharacterization. The number of changes you make will not make the calculation any more difficult than if you did no changes.

I believe that Vanguard does these calculations, but if they refuse for some reason, it is their right to require that you come up with the calculation yourself. There are worksheets in Pub 590 for this purpose, but the main problem is that once the calculation is done, the recharacterization must be done the same day, since the values change every day, lately by hugh amounts.



Alan, I feel like I totally screwed up on thinking I had a strategy on doing conversions from my T-IRA into my Roth. Vanguard has put a damper on my recharacterization plan. They want to know which of the funds I want the loss amount taken out of to make up for the amount of the total conversions.

I’m going to fill you in and maybe you can explain to me where there is an advantage to doing a recharacterization if I have to make up the losses out of another fund from a previous year.

On 3/31/08 my Roth was at $126,004. The previous 4 yearly conversions came to $118,600. Meaning I made a gain of $7404 since doing my conversions up until 2008.

On 4/3/08 I made a 100% shares conversion of 2 Vanguard funds amounting to $38,776. As of 11/29/08 those 2 funds are down $11,798.

On 6/26/08 I made a 100% shares conversion of 1 Vanguard fund amounting to $31,768. As of 11/29/08 that fund is down $10,225.

On 10/23/08 I made a 100% shares conversion of 3 Vanguard ETF’s
amounting to $72,461. As of 11/29/08 those 3 ETF’s are down $3,032.

All the conversions amounted to $143,005 and as of 11/29/08 are down to $117,950. Meaning my loss as of 11/29/08 is [b]($25,105).[/b]

My Roth as of 11/29/08 is worth $195,424 .

Now by knowing this information what amount has to be taken out of a previous year fund to make my recharacterization permitted.

I guess I always figured the reason was to recharacterize if you lost on your yearly conversion. If not recharacterizing you’d be paying taxes on something that wasn’t there. In this case paying taxes on a loss of [b]($25,105)[/b].

I feel Vanguard is either misleading me or they are getting sick of recharacterizing everyones conversions that lost this year.

Alan by knowing what I put down in this post for you can you tell me what I have to recharacterize back to the T-IRA to make this a wash. Saying 11/29/08 was the recharacterization date would it be $143,005 or $117,950 going back into the T-IRA.

I’m sorry about asking so many questions but Fairmark says one thing, Forbes article says about same as Fairmark and then there is Vanguard which says what fund do you want the extra monies taken out of to complete the recharacterization if monies are needed. I’m totally confused.

The best part of my dilema was I was going to convert around $60K of Vanguard Inflation Protected Securities fund first part of Dec. to achieve a conversion that wasn’t going to crash fast or come up fast. I was then going to recharcterize the conversions of 100% shares of the 6 fund/etf’s. I made estimated payments on going with a $60K to $70K conversion and remain right at the edge of 15% to 25% tax bracket. Since talking to Vanguard I’ll be happy to get the three conversions I did back without losing more out of my Roth that I previously paid tax on back in the previous years before 2008.

TIA………………….Jack



Jack,
I can vouch for the conversion information provided by Fairmark and Kaye Thomas. He is a noted authority on Roth conversions and has published books on the subject.

Your confusion here is understandable given the complexity of your situation. The worksheet formula for calculating earnings, in this case negative earnings, applies to the investment experience of the entire Roth IRA account during the period of time the conversion exists. This is simple when you do each conversion into a new Roth account because there is nothing else in the account but the conversion itself, and therefore the earnings are simply the difference between your conversion and what the account is now worth.

Based on your post, I am assuming that you made all these conversions into a single Roth IRA account. If so, each conversion exists for a different time period and is affected by the losses on the other conversions as well as those of the Roth that existed prior to April. Vanguard will use software to figure out what the earnings loss is for each conversion that you wish to recharacterize. If all 3, then 3 calculations are needed.

If you HAD done each of these conversions into a separate Roth, then the actual dollars that would go back to the TIRA in a recharacterization would be the same as your posted numbers. To erase the tax bill on 143,005, only 117,950 would go back to the TIRA. If you had sold the Funds on 11/28, then 117,950 in Money market fund cash would be what would have gone to the TIRA. However, since you converted into a single Roth account, the earnings loss for each recharacterization will not be the same as you indicated because the funds are all commingled together.

Vanguard is correct to give you your choice on what holdings you want to go back to the TIRA, but no matter which you select, the value must add up to the what the earnings calculation indicates must be recharacterized.

The values you posted seem to indicate that the Roth IRA is almost exclusively equity based, with very little in cash. The entire account has tracked the market down, and therefore there is probably not a huge difference between your number of 117,950 and the correct amount to be recharacterized according to the actual calculations.

Providing Vanguard with your instructions should be fairly easy. Decide which investments you most want to have in the TIRA. Then tell them to fund the recharacterizations in order, eg first use up Fund A, then the ETFs, then Fund B etc. In making the decision, send back the worst of the holdings and retain the best ones in the Roth, no matter which conversion they were associated with. If you have losses, better in the TIRA and for gains, better in the Roth for obvious reasons.

There is NO requirement to recharacterize the same holdings that you converted, in fact many investors have long since bailed out on what they actually converted and may have gone to cash. In that case, it’s the cash that is recharacterized. In your case, even though you converted the ETFs LAST, you can make them the first holdings to complete the first conversion recharacterization if you wish. Vanguard should have no problem doing fractional share recharacterizations or for that matter conversions.

There does not seem to any obvious conflict with what Vanguard is asking and the correct rules. They just want to give you your choice on what holdings move back. The main risk to you in this entire process would be if their calculations are wrong and they send back too much to the TIRA. The less sent back the better. Again, no matter how much goes back, your tax impact is the same. You will have erased the tax bill on conversions that have dropped substantially in value.

I know this is confusing, but hope this helps.



The 5498 is due to the IRS in May but more and more custodians are sending them out with the 1099s – which are due 2/15 beginning in 2009.



Alan
I’ve had discussions with the OP on another forum and it sounds as if he has also learned how VG treats losses. You may recall you helped me in my battle with them. They would “not” deal with my roth1 and roth2 individually.
However, reading your reply to him re partioning, I’m confused. Do you still feel that VG will/should treat the accounts individually.
I’m still trying to figure out whether I should recharacterize other roth assets to make up the loss. It seems like a wash from tax standpoint.

Thanks for your incredible patience with us amateurs.



Ted,
Yes, there is no doubt that for earnings calculations for recharacterized conversions or regular contributions, each account should be treated separately. The OP here has been dealing with only one Roth account, albeit several conversions into that account.

Your case was somewhat unique in that Vanguard agreed to retroactively separate the accounts because they failed to follow your conversion request. Then, they inexplicably refused to consider them separate when calculating the earnings.

In all other cases involving Vanguard or other custodians, this is the first time I have heard of any of them combining accounts for the calculation, as the IRS Regs are very clear that each account stands on its own. Therefore, in your case it must relate back to the fact that they originally were combined, even though done in error.

Note that converting into an existing Roth or doing multiple conversions into the same Roth does not always work against you. In some cases it can save you from the hassle of recharacterizing and in other cases it can result in less dollars going back to the TIRA than otherwise. But I still do not recommend it if you want to avoid the confusion of difficult earnings calculations, having to recharacterize assets other than what you converted, and otherwise having a better handle on each separate conversion.



Alan
Thanks for your response. I’m wondering if you have any suggestions how to deal with this at VG. This topic is being discussed on the” Boglehead” forum and you and Fairmark are regularly quoted .
As you know, I went up the ladder at VG and received a very clear message. It never changed from person to person. They combine all their Roth accounts no matter of the title. In their eyes, the IRS Regs only refer to accounts with different custodians like Fidelity etc.
The fact that my account was corrected never entered the discussion.

My particular situation is not all that critical anymore with my presently reduced loss. I’ve resigned myself to paying tax on the unconverted amount expecting taxes to be higher down the road.

Would it be possible for you to discuss this issue with the VG IRA dept as a counselor to many of their members. Perhaps, I have misunderstood this whole mess.

Thank you for your consideration, Ted



Ted,
I called Vanguard Retirement Services, and came to the conclusion that perhaps the confusion is due to the use of actual IRA account numbers vrs. mutual fund numbers and/or was due to the retroactive account change they made. The entire account platform Vanguard uses is much different and more complex than the one used by Charles Schwab or Fidelity.

The Retirement services specialist I talked to was “Annie”. She confirmed that they DO follow IRS Regulations when calculating earnings to be recharacterized, and that they do combine all funds in a particular “account”, but do NOT combine different IRA accounts.

I told her that your situation had already involved reconstruction of an account, and she said that any calcs combined with other accounts would only be done if it was a post conversion split rather than a fully retroactive split. That makes sense. Therefore, their creation of a second account may not have been fully retroactive in all respects, and considered a post conversion split. That would explain their insistence of combining those accounts for earnings calcs.



Alan
Thanks for taking the time to talk to Vanguard. I was not able to get to the same Annie you talked to, but went thru the whole thing again.

Your comment about combining accounts vs different IRA’s is still a mystery to me. They insist that all Roths are combined in their computation. The retroactive account issue is not the problem looking at my case.

I have taken enough of your time and will just let this rest for now. Your efforts have been appreciated.
Ted



Alan
Just to let you know, VG will recharacterize the one account only. Asked me to add a memo of instruction with the form.
Sounds like mgt has come around but still fear their system could scr…. it up.
Sure glad I didn’t have to bother with an IRA transfer. Still like VG overall
Ted



Alan or whomever, I have another question????

I made 4 conversions from a T-IRA to a Roth in 2008. I’m recharacterizing the conversions of the first three dates.

04/03/08 $38,776 – prior Roth value 130,000
06/26/08 $31,768 – prior Roth value 164,000
10/23/08 $72,461 – prior Roth value 127,500
12/03/08 $50,000 equalling $193,005 total of all conversions for 2008.

Pub. 590 page 31 worksheet 1-3 ???????

On line 3 of worksheet does $193,005 get added to each calculation of the value of the ROTH immediately on day prior to the time of each recharacterization I am having done.
Ex. 04/02/08 Roth Value 130,000 + all 2008 conversions $193,005 =
$323,005….2nd date $164,000 +$193005 = $357,005….3rd date $127,500 + $193,005 = $320,505????? [b]Is this right?????[/b]

Also after doing each computation and line 7 of all three dates = $81,458 total and the conversions are now equalling $112,048. Does that mean I am able to recharacterize and put the $112,048 back in the T-IRA and still beable to have my $50,000 on 12/03/08 conversion be taxable???

I do realize that line 2 will change depending on when Vanguard does the recharacterizations which will effect what is put back into my T-IRA.

Alan, I what to thank you so much for being so patient with a taxable situation dummie.

TIA……………JACK



Well I recharacterized my four 2008 conversions on 12/09/08.

04/03/08 $38,776 – prior day Roth value 130,000
06/26/08 $31,768 – prior day Roth value 164,000
10/23/08 [u]$72,461[/u] – prior day Roth value 127,500
..equals..$143,005 for first 3 conversions
12/05/08 $58,000 equalling $203,005 total of all four conversions for 2008.

The Vanguard custodian form asked what conversions I wanted recharacterized.
I put down the first 3 conversion dates. Included 3 funds on the 1st and 2nd conversions and 3 ETF’s on the the 3rd conversion.

When Vanguard got done I looked and they had the 3 ETF’s value of 12/09/08(amounting to $67 more than the 3rd conversion) back in my T-IRA.

What has me confused is that they put back $13,203 and into each fund = $39,609 back into the T-IRA three funds. It left $200 and $400 into the 1st conversion funds left in the ROTH and left $8400 in the 2nd conversion fund.

After calculating I had $153,005 converted on first 3 conversions and after re-characterizing only $112,137 went back to the T-IRA.

I called Vanguard and asked why the first 2 conversions were not put completely back into the T-IRA. I said I only wanted to be taxed on the 4th conversion of $58,000. They said after checking and calling back a hour later that I would only be taxed on the $58,000 of the 4th conversion.

I was always under the assumption that all the funds and ETF’s of the first 3 conversions would be closed out and was very surprised to see around $9000 was left in the 3 ROTH funds of the first 2 conversions????

The reason they said they split the $39,609 in 3 was that they thought I would want to leave those funds open seeing those funds where minimum opening amounts on the 3 funds were $10K and $25 funds.

I have two representatives on recorded lines saying that I would only be taxed on the $58,000 of the 4th conversion.

[b]Does this sound right to you personal finance CPA’s and hobbists????????

Any input would be appreciated because I still feel uneasy that I’ll owe more conversion taxes than $58,000 of the 4th conversion seeing there is still $9000 left in the 3 funds of the first 2 conversions.[/b]

TIA…………………..Jack



The most important factor here is that they send the correct amount back to the TIRA. What particular assets are where is much less important because you can always rearrange that with no tax impact.

First, I noted your post opened with the statement that you recharacterized all 4 conversions. Apparently, you meant just the first 3, and not the final one. Also, your total for the first 3 is incorrect, it should be 143,005, not 153,005 if you correctly add up the amounts in your post.

Just ballparking that the market is down around 33% for the first two conversions and not much of a change for the 3rd one, it would indicate that about 120,000 should go back, and that is in the general ballpark of the 112,137 you indicated.

The amount you will be taxed on is not related to what particular assets are where after the recharacterization. It is strictly based on the amounts that you report in your explanatory statement on your return and what you show on the 8606. Since the last conversion is the only one left in place, that is the only one you will report on Form 8606, ie you will report a conversion of 58,000 only.

The explanatory statement will state:

“On 4/3/08 I converted 38,776 to my Roth IRA.
On 6/26/08 I converted 31,768 to my Roth IRA.
On 10/23/08 I converted 72,641 to my Roth IRA.

On 12/9/08 I fully recharacterized all 3 of the above conversions, which were then worth 112,137, back to my traditional IRA.”

I cannot comment on the amounts of the various holdings and in which IRA they are now located without seeing your actual recharacterization form. Or, it is also possible that Vanguard changed your order due to certain minimums on certain funds.

But there is no reason that you should be taxed on anything more than the 4th conversion, and where the various investments are now does not affect your taxes. It just affects where future gains or losses will occur.



[b]Thank you Alan[/b] and sorry about the addition mistake. It was 143,005 on the first 3 conversions.

Also, your right that it was only the first 3 conversions that were re-characterized.

I guess I said 4 because they use all the conversions in the amount of $201,005 when calculating the first 3 re-characterizations.

Again. Alan thanks for confirming that I’ll only be paying tax on the 4th conversion of $58,000.

GLI………………..Jack



This is just a correction I made because of poor addition that Alan brought to my attention.

[quote=”[email protected]“]Well I recharacterized my four 2008 conversions on 12/09/08.

04/03/08 $38,776 – prior day Roth value 130,000
06/26/08 $31,768 – prior day Roth value 164,000
10/23/08 [u]$72,461[/u] – prior day Roth value 127,500
..equals..$143,005 for first 3 conversions
12/05/08 $58,000 equalling $203,005 total of all four conversions for 2008.

The Vanguard custodian form asked what conversions I wanted recharacterized.
I put down the first 3 conversion dates. Included 3 funds on the 1st and 2nd conversions and 3 ETF’s on the the 3rd conversion.

When Vanguard got done I looked and they had the 3 ETF’s value of 12/09/08(amounting to $67 more than the 3rd conversion) back in my T-IRA.

What has me confused is that they put back $13,203 and into each fund = $39,609 back into the T-IRA three funds. It left $200 and $400 into the 1st conversion funds left in the ROTH and left $8400 in the 2nd conversion fund.

After calculating I had $143,005 converted on first 3 conversions and after re-characterizing only $112,137 went back to the T-IRA.

I called Vanguard and asked why the first 2 conversions were not put completely back into the T-IRA. I said I only wanted to be taxed on the 4th conversion of $58,000. They said after checking and calling back a hour later that I would only be taxed on the $58,000 of the 4th conversion.

I was always under the assumption that all the funds and ETF’s of the first 3 conversions would be closed out and was very surprised to see around $9000 was left in the 3 ROTH funds of the first 2 conversions????

The reason they said they split the $39,609 in 3 was that they thought I would want to leave those funds open seeing those funds where minimum opening amounts on the 3 funds were $10K and $25 funds.

I have two representatives on recorded lines saying that I would only be taxed on the $58,000 of the 4th conversion.

[b]Does this sound right to you personal finance CPA’s and hobbists????????

Any input would be appreciated because I still feel uneasy that I’ll owe more conversion taxes than $58,000 of the 4th conversion seeing there is still $9000 left in the 3 funds of the first 2 conversions.[/b]

TIA…………………..Jack[/quote]



Alan- This is a very informative thread. I have a couple of specific questions I wonder if you could quickly respond to:

1) When converting multiple assets (funds) from a TIRA to a single Roth, I’m assuming that you have to perform separate conversions for each fund so you can later identify the specific fund conversions (fund, date of conversion) that you want to recharacterize. If you instead were to do a single conversion that includes all the funds involved, then there is no way to single out specific funds to recharacterize later – you can only recharacterize an AMOUNT that would have to be prorated across all the funds involved. Is this correct?

2) If the above is correct, it would seem to me that you save a lot of hassle by opening multiple Roths and then converting one fund to each of these. Then you simply recharacterize the total balance in each of the individual Roths containing the funds you want to unconvert at the end of the year. Does this sound like the best approach?



1) No. A single conversion can include multiple different holdings. The IRS is only interested in amounts, not holdings. You can choose any combination of holding you wish if you are not converting a cash equivalent such as a MM fund. If you wish to recharacterize, you can use any holdings you wish that are still in the Roth when you recharacterize. In other words, if you convert shares of A and B to a Roth that already holds C, you can choose to recharacterize C back to the TIRA if you want to. Or you can sell A and B in your Roth and buy D and use D to recharacterize.

Because the recharacterization has to include an earnings calculation for all holding in the Roth including pre existing holdings, the amount for recharacterization can be far more or less than you actually converted. Because of this, there might not be enough value in A or B left to recharacterize, and some shares of C will have to be added to get to the right amount required. Again, the earnings calculation includes all the holdings in the Roth to determine an amount, but you should then be able to choose any holdings in the Roth you wish to arrive at the required amount to recharacterize.

2) While your first statement was not correct, there still is an advantage for doing separate conversions, but do them on different days so they can be identified. If you convert A to a Roth on 12/22, and B to another Roth on 12/23, you can avoid any earnings calculation because the account balance is automatically the amount that needs to be recharacterized, and if the holdings are still the same, all you do is call the custodian and tell them to recharacterize the 12/22 conversion. Some people will do two of these and recharacterize the worst performer only.

Conversely, if you recharacterize A to a Roth that already holds B in the same amount, and A loses 50% while B gains 50%, you have no net gain or loss since the amounts are averaged. If you wanted to recharacterize this conversion, there would not be enough value left in A to complete it and you would have to add 1/3 of B to bring the complete recharacterization value up to the original conversion amount.

Therefore, having separate Roth accounts does give you more control of each particular conversion with respect to recharacterization.

Finally, a recharacterization does not have to be total. If you convert 50,000, you can choose to recharacterize any % of that you wish. If you recharacterized half, then you would be left with a tax on 25,000.

The approach depends on what you want to accomplish with your conversion. If you convert a stable value holding, then you are not going to want to recharacterize because of losses. You can depend on using your tax bracket for the year and being done with it. On the other hand, if you do not mind recharacterizing and want to try to hit a home run in the market, you can convert or buy a holding in the converted account that is volatile. In this situation, you would intend to retain the conversion if the holding goes up, but if it drops x% you know you will want to recharacterize. If that happens, and your bracket is lower that year, you will lose that opportunity to use the lower tax rate because your recharacterization will wipe out the conversion.

This year is unique in that many conversions have lost big and need to be recharacterized. But if you have other assets in your TIRA that you did not convert, you can still convert them now and recharacterize the first one.



Alan- Thanks for your detailed response. I have to admit that the light-bulb is still a little dim for me. Let me give a specific illustration and perhaps you would be willing to help me walk through it.

Let’s say I have one TIRA and one Roth. The Roth contains pre-existing holdings. I perform two conversions: (1) convert $10,000 from MM in TIRA to MM in Roth and (2) convert 100 shares worth $10,000 in a Stock Mutual Fund in TIRA to the same Stock Mutual Fund in Roth. At a later date, the Stock Mutual Fund inthe Roth has lost 50% of it’s value when converted. I wish to recharacterize that particular conversion in order to avoid paying taxes on $10,000 which is now worth $5,000. I do not wish to recharacterize the $10,000 MM conversion or any of the pre-existing holdings in the Roth.

Scenario A: I assumed that what would happen is that my Roth custodian would simply recharacterize the 100 SHARES from the Roth back to the TIRA plus any attributable earnings. Then those 100 shares with a present value of only $5000 would be back in my TIRA, as if I had never done that conversion in the first place and had taken the 50% loss on those shares in my TIRA.

Scenario B: I understand you to be saying that it is the original $10,000 amount of the earlier conversion is actually recharacterized, not the present value of $5,000. In other words, if I directed the custodian to recharacterize the $10,000 conversion of 100 Fund shares, since the 100 Fund shares are now worth only $5,000, they would actually recharacterize all the shares of the Stock Fund PLUS another $5,000 from the rest of the Roth holdings in order to equal the $10,000 value of the original conversion. In addition, the earnings attributable to all the holdings in the Roth (including prexisting holdings) would have to recharacterized as well on a pro-rated basis.

If the latter is a correct interpretation, I don’t understand it at all. If I simply want to undo the Stock Fund conversion (now worth 50% of its original value) how should this be done? Should the custodian be directed to recharacterize the AMOUNT that represents the present value of the 100 shares of the Stock Fund, and withdraw that AMOUNT from the Stock Fund holdings in the Roth – which in effect would reduce the Stock Fund balance in the Roth to zero shares?



Before I respond to your example, I need to know whether you did one conversion of 20,000 on the same date that was composed of two different holdings OR whether you did one for 10,000 on one date and the other 10,000 on another date. This determines whether you have done one conversion or two. The number of holdings does not matter.



Alan-
These were two separate conversions on different dates, each for $10,000.



OK, then you would tell the custodian that you want to do a total recharacterization of the conversion dated xx/xx/2008. The custodian must then do the earnings calculation on the entire Roth account including all the other investments in the account. (This would not be necessary if you did each conversion into a new Roth account).

Let’s assume the stock mutual fund of 10,000 lost the most, but the overall loss is only 25% because you have MM funds in the Roth as well as other holdings. If the overall loss is 25%, then 7,500 is the amount that must go back to the Roth IRA. This is an IRS requirement.

But the holdings that go back are your choice. If you first want the stock shares that you converted to be recharacterized, they are now only worth 5,000. In order to come up with the extra 2,500 you will then have to send 2,500 of other assets back to the TIRA. Scenario A you posted does not take into consideration that the earnings calculation must include all the other assets. A would be correct if you had converted into a new Roth account. If the conversion was the only holding in a Roth, then no calculation is needed, you just send everything back.

Likewise, Scenario B starts out correct, but again overlooks the earnings calculation and the number it would produce. Using the above example with a 25% overall loss, you would only need 2,500 worth of other investments to bring your 5,000 up to 7,500. In this case you would tell the custodian to fund your recharacterization first with shares of the stock mutual fund you converted (give them the symbol) until they were used up, and complete the recharacterization with enough shares of (select another investment) to equal the 7,500.

Sending 7,500 back to the Roth STILL enables you to eliminate the tax on the full 10,000 of the conversion you recharacterized. You would show only the conversion that sticks on Form 8606, and would attach an explanatory statement to your return explaining the other conversion that you recharacterized including amounts and dates. No need to mention the particular holdings as the IRS does not care about that, only amounts.



Thanks again Alan for all the information you have provided. Wow, I didn’t understand how this works at all. Just to confirm – you are saying that, in effect, all the assets in the Roth become “pooled” for purposes of calculating gains/losses for rechacterization, correct? The actual amount that will be recharacterized is based on the performance of the entire portfolio and is likely to include some portion of “other” assets that I don’t necessarily want to move back to the TIRA – in this example it could include some money market funds that I didn’t really want to touch.

One other question – what happens if I sold some of the Stock Fund shares in the Roth too? Let’s say the original conversions were $10K Stock Fund and $10K Money Market.

Let’s say I then exchanged half of my Stock Fund shares for MM and in addition the Stock Fund has lost 50% of its value. Just to make things easy, let’s say the MM has had a zero return, so the total value of the Roth now consists of $2,500 Stock Fund ($5,000 was sold and the remaining $5,000 is now worth only $2,500) plus $15,000 MM (original $10,000 plus the $5,000 Stock Fund exchange). The total portfolio now has a combined value of $17,500 for a loss of $2,500 or 12.5%.

If I instruct the custodian to recharacterize the $10,000 Stock Fund conversion, they will return $8750 to the TIRA ($10,000 – 12.5%). If I did specify the Stock Fund first, they would return all of the $2500 Stock fund plus $6250 of the MM is that correct? I’m saving myself taxes on the original $10,000 that was converted by doing the recharacterization, but I’m transferring a lot of assets I didn’t necessarily want to touch back to the TIRA.

Is there a way to recharacterize so that ONLY the Stock Fund balance in the Roth is transferred back to the TIRA? Obviously, I could have done this had I converted the Stock Fund to a separate new Roth account instead, correct?



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