RMD Due 2010 even with conversion?
If someone who turned 70-1/2 last year converts all his retirement holdings to Roth, will he still have RMD for this year and then no more RMD thereafter?
If someone who turned 70-1/2 last year converts all his retirement holdings to Roth, will he still have RMD for this year and then no more RMD thereafter?
Permalink Submitted by tomd37 on Mon, 2010-01-11 14:43
I believe you must take your 2010 RMD first, and then you can convert the remaining balance to a Roth IRA. We’ll see what others have to say.
Permalink Submitted by Alan Spross on Mon, 2010-01-11 16:08
Tom is correct assuming the conversion is in 2010.