When and How much tax due on NUA?
I have a Client who Retired from Pacar after 30 years. When we met him, he had some Employer Stock in his 401K. We told him about NUA. I have questions about when and how much tax he owes. Below is the history:
We Opened up a Fidelity Instutional Brokerage Acct and IRA Acct March 2012. We called the Pacar 401K Custodian (Fidelty) and directed them to Transfer the Company Stock to the Brokerage Acct and the rest to the IRA. They did that March 26, 2012. The main question is on the NUA tax in the Brokerage Acct. Fidelty Pacar 401K told us that the Cost Basis on the Pacar Stock was $107,262.10. 8070 Shares were transfered to the Brokerage Acct on March 26, 2012. The Closing Price of the Stock on that day was $47.53 (don’t know if that matters), for a total of $383,567. It is my understanding that the Client owes tax on the Cost Basis ($107,262.10) at his Ordinary Income Tax Rate (in this case 25% or $26,815.50 for 2012, the year of the Distribution. Is this Correct? This is what we told the Client last year about this time. To add to this, the Client, in expectation of this tax due by April 15, 2013, Sold 600 Shares of his Pacar Stock in the same Brokerage Account December 26, 2012 to “cover the tax due” from the transaction. 600 X $44.65 = $26,785. What is the tax owed on this? Is it 15% Long-term Capital Gains?
The Client’s CPA is asking me about the “Cost Per Share”. Why does he need this? Do I need to divide the number of share, 8070 at the time the Client did the NUA (March 26, 2012) by the Cost Basis ($107,262.10)? If we do that it is $13.29 per share. Do we need to factor in the cost per share anywhere?
I haven’t read anything on factoring in the Cost Per Share anywhere. It was my understanding that the Client pays Ordinary Income tax on the Cost Basis of the Stock the year it is rolled out to the Brokerage Acct and because the Cost Basis is treated as a Distribution. And going forward, any stock sold going forward is treated as Long-term Capital Gains (currently 15%). Right! Did the Client need to hold the stock in the Brokerage Acct for One Year before he sold some share to recieve the Long-term Capial Gains Tax rate?
Thanks for anyone who can give me a straight, accurate answer.
Dave S.
Wenatchee, WA
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2013-04-02 18:11