Initial year RMDs – all or nothing?
Are RMDs all or nothing?
EX: Client is 70.5 in 2015, so not required to begin until 4/1/16, but then has 2 distributions in ’16 vs. 1 in ’15 and 1 in ’16.
If Client wants to take out a portion of his first year RMD in 2015 and the remainder in tax year 2016 (by 4/1/16), does that work?
Just to further the example with numbers, say the RMD for 2015 is $10,000. Can the client take $2,500 in 2015 and $7,500 by 4/1/2016?
Many thanks, Levi
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2015-04-07 23:50
Yes, the first RMD distribution year has only one requirement – that the entire distribution be completed by 4/1 of the following year. Client can distribute anything between 0 and 100% of the 10,000 in 2015. This flexibility only occurs once, but if carefully planned client can manage it to pay the lowest possible amount in taxes for the two years combined.
Permalink Submitted by Levi Brandriss on Wed, 2015-04-08 13:01
Much appreciated – any chance you have a source on this? I know you are clearly an expert on here based on responses, but a client’s CPA was asking this question, and likely wants me to point somewhere.Thanks!Levi
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Wed, 2015-04-08 21:17
There is no direct refererence, but this portion of IRS Reg 1.401(a)(9)-5 applies to the first distribution year and the required beginning date. Note that the ONLY requirement is that the RMD for the first distribution year be completed by the RBD. There is no restriction on how that first distribution year RMD be divided between the two years:
Permalink Submitted by Levi Brandriss on Fri, 2015-04-10 14:39
Appreciate the responses