Verification of steps with nonspouse inherited 401K
I inherited a Traditional 401K plan this year as a non-spouse. I was considering taking advantage of a partial conversion to an inherited Roth with the remainder going to the inherited traditional IRA.
The plan is telling me I must first convert to the inherited Traditional IRA and then do the conversion of the amount I wish to the inherited Roth. Everything I have read seems to point to it must be done during the initial conversion and once it is in an inherited traditional it can’t be converted at all to an inherited Roth. Am I mistaken or are they?
If they are mistaken, is there something I can refer them to which supports this?
Permalink Submitted by David Mertz on Fri, 2016-08-12 15:43
Permalink Submitted by Jason Scott on Fri, 2016-08-12 16:20
I appreciate it. I thought they were, but since it isn’t that common found little to go off of or that I could refer them to review. Even one of the companies I spoke to with regards to opening an inherited IRA account were unaware of the option.As far as I know the Traditional 401K has no after-tax contributions, so I would be liable for any taxes due from the conversion. I am considering using the RMD to cover the taxes owed since I need to take this year based off the original participant’s timeline since one wasn’t taken yet for 2016.
Permalink Submitted by Ben Meyer on Fri, 2016-08-12 16:28
In the event that the decedents 401(k) contains basis from after-tax contributions, is the beneficiary permitted to utilize the benefits of Notice 2014-54? The beneficiary would then be able to transfer the after-tax basis to an inherited Roth IRA, and transfer the pre-tax balance to an inherited traditional IRA. The result would be tax-free to the beneficiary. (The RMDs received from the inherited traditional IRA would still be taxable to the beneficiary.)
Permalink Submitted by David Mertz on Fri, 2016-08-12 17:29
Permalink Submitted by Jason Scott on Fri, 2016-08-12 18:15
Thanks for the additional clarification. I figured I needed to take the RMD before I did the rollover, but wasn’t positive it was required. There are actually two, non-spouse beneficiaries. Would we need to take the RMD prior to splittng the 401K or does it matter as long as we satisfy the RMD prior to the direct rollover?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Fri, 2016-08-12 18:40
If the plan requires a citation regarding beneficiary direct rollovers, here is Q 7 from Notice 2008-30:
Note that the provision that the direct rollovers are optional was changed by WRERA in Dec, 2008, therefore the plan MUST offer these direct rollovers today. Also, in the event you change your mind regarding the taxes due on the Roth rollover, you can recharacterize that to an inherited TIRA account subject to the usual deadlines. With respect to your question, the plan will first set up separate accounts for each beneficiary in the plan, but you should then be allowed to split the year of death RMD between the two beneficiaries in any proportion you wish. The last step would be the direct rollovers to inherited IRAs or inherited Roth IRAs.
Permalink Submitted by David Mertz on Fri, 2016-08-12 19:28
Also note that MAGI limits for being able to do such a rollover were eliminated for 2010 and beyond, so the statement about that in Q&A-7 no longer applies either.