I realize IRAs and 401k operate according to some different rules, but I seek some clarity: I opened my first Roth IRA in April 2010. It continues to exist. No distributions have been taken from it. I had been contributing to a Traditional 401k at my job until 2013 when I changed my contributions to a Roth 401k at the same employer. Therefore my 401k had both Traditional and Roth elements when I retired in late January 2016. I elected to take the first RMD in 2016. The 401k implementer is Principal. Principal insisted on taking a portion of the RMD from the Roth element and the balance from the Traditional portion. I presume this was on a proportional basis according to the relative Roth and Traditional dollar balances, but I am not certain. I received a 1099-R from Principal that indicated a sum that showed in Box 2a a taxable amount and the gross distribution in Box 1.

Is this taxable amount because of from the employer’s match after I switched to contributing to the Roth 401k? Or, is it that for some reason the Roth distribution is taxable? I noted above that the Roth 401k had not been opened for five years although the Roth IRA elsewhere was first opened in 2010, more than five years before. If the Roth part of the RMD was taxable because I had not had the Roth 401k open for five years, is this not double taxation since my contributions to the Roth 401k ware after tax dollars? Does the fact that the Roth IRA was opened more than five years before the RMD count as the five-year requirement to avoid taxation on a Roth IRA that was younger than five years? Or does the Roth IRA’s five year period not get me off the hook for the five-year requirement for the Roth 401k portion of the RMD.

Is my situation clear enough for response? Thank you. Douglas.