Best way to approach for simplicity and taxes
I have a prospect, Helmut who is 82 and lives in Florida. His wife passed away in 2016 at the age of 61.
Helmut has a 401(k) at a bank
Market value as of 12/31/16: $1,011,658.94
Divisor bank is using: 8.6
His wife has a 401(k) at a bank also
Market value as of 12/31/16 $1,110,542.58
Divisor bank is using: 23.3
Helmut also has a rollover IRA at Schwab with a Market value as of 12/31/16 $250,970.56
1. I believe the divisor the bank is using on Helmut should be 16.3 and not 8.6?
2. My understanding is that Helmut has to roll over the wife’s 401(k) into an IRA in his name or take a lump sum?
3. Any disadvantage (other than using the wrong divisor) to keeping Helmut’s 401(k) as is?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Wed, 2017-02-15 22:14
Permalink Submitted by Ben Meyer on Thu, 2017-02-16 03:03
It may be a coincidence, but the divisor of 8.6 for Helmut is the number from the Single Life Table for a person at age 83 at the end of the year. That would match Helmut’s age since he is now 82 early in the year, assuming his birthday has not yet occurred this year. So somehow the plan custodian or recordkeeper might be treating this plan as an inherited plan with 2017 as Helmut’s first year with the account. If further information is available, it may clarify the matter.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Thu, 2017-02-16 04:47
If the 8.6 divisor went with the wife’s plan instead of Helmut’s it would indicate that they think Helmut must take a beneficiary RMD in 2017 based on age 83. However, that would not be correct if he was the sole beneficiary of the account, because his beneficiary RMDs do not start until wife would have reached 70.5. The reported info needs to be re verified, as it appears more than one issue exists here.
Permalink Submitted by Ben Meyer on Thu, 2017-02-16 13:54