Selling business to avoid RMD
My client is 69 years old and currently a 95% owner of his law firm. he does not plan to retire any time soon, but currently has a minority partner owning the other 5%. He does hope to sell his business at some point in the near future. He has a 401k plan at his firm. would he be able to sell a total of 96% of his business and remain an employee so that he could continue to contribute to the company 401k, and delay RMD’s on this account?
Independent question: can an employee possibly roll another IRA into his 401k so that he could delay RMD’s on the IRA?
Permalink Submitted by Ben Meyer on Mon, 2017-07-17 22:53
Will the sale of the firm be absolute, or will he retain an option to re-purchase some portion of the firm at a later time, or be granted any ownership options as an employee?
Permalink Submitted by Michael Eastham on Tue, 2017-07-18 14:30
Sale of the business will be absolute, with no options to repurchase down the road. would it make a difference if there was an option, as long as he didn’t exercise the option he would remain a 5% (or less) owner?
Permalink Submitted by Ben Meyer on Tue, 2017-07-18 15:53
It seems best to avoid any questions of tangential or potential ownership involvement that would exceed 5%, although i don’t know of any regulations or decisions that would require RMDs under those circumstances.