Woud This Create a A Pro Rata Situation?
An employee makes an annual contribution to his nondeductible TIRA at Vanguard which he then Roth converts except for a token amount left in the Vanguard account to keep it open. He would of course have to stop contributing after he retires and no longer has earned income.
He also contributes to to a 401(k) and a cash balance plan through his employer.
Should either of these 2 plans end before he retires, he may have to remove those assets and so would then want to directly roll them into a TIRA. If he first removes the token amount in the TIRA by Roth conversion so that there would be 0 in the TIRA on let’s say June 1, 2021 and rolls over the qualified plan to the TIRA on June 3, 2021, would he have avoided a pro rata situation or not?
Thank you.
Permalink Submitted by David Mertz on Wed, 2020-11-04 03:21
If any of the individual’s traditional IRAs have basis in nondeductible contributions, the pro rata calculation of nontaxable and taxable amounts of the Roth conversion and any other distributions from the traditional IRAs is required. Since the pro rata calculation uses the year-end values of the traditional IRAs, not the value on any other date such as June 1, the individual’s Roth conversions will be largely taxable even though the traditional IRAs had a zero balance prior to the rollovers from the qualified retirement plans. For the pro rata calculation, the Roth conversions and any other distributions are effectively treated as having occurred on December 31 no matter the actual date that they occur.
Permalink Submitted by fairira on Thu, 2020-11-05 08:22
I hope this attempt at formatting will help make my earlier post more readable.. DMx, Thank you.I have 2 questions which I hope you may answer. 1. About the “Backdoor Roth” thread that began 11/3/20 and on which you commented: It appears to me that the client’s plans involved having, at least briefly in 2020, a balance in a SIMPLE IRA and a contribution to a ND IRA which he planned to Roth convert in 2020. If these 2 IRA’s are not a pro rata situation, is it because both the SIMPLE IRA and ND IRA balances would be 0 at year-end? 2. With regard to my first post in this thread, “Would This Create A Pro Rata Situation?”: If the employee Roth converts all of his post-tax ND contribution assets in his TIRA in the same year even though after he rolls his employer plan assets (all pre-tax) into that TIRA, is this still a pro rata situation though the year-end assets of his TIRA would be all pre-tax with 0 post-tax? If this would still be a pro rata situation, I would appreciate if you could help me understand why. Thank you.
Permalink Submitted by fairira on Thu, 2020-11-05 08:35
Permalink Submitted by [email protected] on Thu, 2020-11-05 00:22The content is the same as my earlier post a few minutes ago but this formatting should be clearer, I hope. DMx, thank you. I have 2 questions which I hope you may answer. 1. About the “Backdoor Roth” thread that began 11/3/20 and on which you commented: It appears to me that the client’s plans involved having, at least briefly in 2020, a balance in a SIMPLE IRA and a contribution to a ND IRA which he planned to Roth convert in 2020. If these 2 IRA’s are not a pro rata situation, is it because both the SIMPLE IRA and ND IRA balances would be 0 at year-end? 2. With regard to my first post in this thread, “Would This Creata A Pro Rata Situation?”: If the employee Roth converts all of his post-tax ND contribution assets in his TIRA in the same year even though after he rolls his employer plan assets (all pre-tax) into that TIRA, is this still a pro rata situation though the year-end assets of his TIRA would be all pre-tax with 0 post-tax? If this would still be a pro rata situation, I would appreciate if you could help me understand why. Thank you.
Permalink Submitted by David Mertz on Thu, 2020-11-05 13:23