Roth 401(k) – Required Minimum Distributions
We were recently told that, for a 401(k) that has both tax-deferred and Roth balances in the plan, a participant can take the RMD and control which portion comes from Roth and which portion comes from tax-deferred to mitigate taxable income considerations while the participant is still earning income. Is this accurate or do you have to assign the taxable vs. Roth distribution proportionally?
NOTE: This was in the concept of a Solo 401(k) plan for a self-employed individual.
Thank you!
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2022-12-06 23:59
Permalink Submitted by Arminta Stacy McKelvey on Wed, 2022-12-07 22:02
Thank you for the response; please clarify this one point for me: “Once the Roth balance has been rolled into a Roth IRA, there are no RMDs, which is preferable to the aggregation flexibility.” Is there not still an RMD requirement if the particiant has a balance in the pre-tax portion of the plan and is more than 5% owner of the business (as the case would be for a Solo plan)?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Wed, 2022-12-07 23:13
Yes, there would still be an RMD based on the remaining pre tax balance, but that total RMD would be lower if the Roth dollars were rolled into a Roth IRA where there are no RMDs, and Roth assets could be preserved. The pre tax balance could also be reduced by a rollover but that would not lower RMDs, they would just come out of the rollover IRA instead. All plan RMDs must be completed for the year before any rollovers of additional amounts to an IRA are done.