In hopes that I ask this question correctly, here goes.

A donor who has an IRA and is of the age to take RMDs now has a one-time opportunity to take up to $50,000 of their RMD and purchase a CGA, locking in that income forever.

How do you figure or measure if/when that is better for them to do as opposed to not taking the CGA which would result in a larger RMD?

Thanks