Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 12:51
It’s taxed as ordinary income if the MMF was in an IRA.
If not in an IRA, there is no tax for the distribution itself but there will be a 1099DIV next January showing the taxable dividends on the MMF generated prior to the distribution.
Permalink Submitted by Geoffrey Kasher on Tue, 2025-04-08 13:44
Going back to Pershing.
Client has divorced last year. She and the husband split the accounts equally. How is the transfer of assets from joint to individual handled? Is this a taxable event and if so how.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 14:00
The 1099B was probably for other assets sold, since the sale of money market funds does not generate a cap gain or loss.
If a brokerage account is separated into separate accounts for each divorcee, there is no tax unless shares are sold. The transfer itself is not taxable. Each spouse would end up with half (or whatever % the courts decided) the value and half the basis of any shares.
Permalink Submitted by Geoffrey Kasher on Tue, 2025-04-08 15:06
no equity assets were sold. she just took $$ from the money market.
2 more questions:
Client earned w-2 of about 44k in 2024. She however did have capital gains of over 50k. How are the gains taxed?
Is this also correct? When assets are transferred between spouses or former spouses “incident to a divorce,” the transfer is generally tax-free, meaning no gain or loss is recognized, and the recipient assumes the original owner’s tax basis.
If this is correct, does Pershing need to redo the 1099 showing the capital gain?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 15:18
The quote is correct, the mere transfer of assets per a divorce settlement is not a taxable event.
But if any of these assets are sold, a 1099B will result. However, there should not normally be a 1099B for a money market fund redemption as there would be for a mutual fund (non MM) sale. If there was, the broker should be asked for an explanation.
Cap gain tax for the client would be taxed at 0% up approximately where the client’s 12% marginal rate ends, then for amounts in excess taxed at 15%.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 18:28
If the return was filed and omitted the 1099B, an amended return is required. But if the cost basis shown on the 1099B is the same as the proceeds, there will not be any gain or loss and no need to amend the return. The answer depends on what is shown on the 1099B as the cost basis.
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 12:51
It’s taxed as ordinary income if the MMF was in an IRA.
If not in an IRA, there is no tax for the distribution itself but there will be a 1099DIV next January showing the taxable dividends on the MMF generated prior to the distribution.
Permalink Submitted by Geoffrey Kasher on Tue, 2025-04-08 13:18
It’s in a NQ brokerage account. Thanks that’s what I thought. Pershing gave her a 1099-B.
Thanks again
Permalink Submitted by Geoffrey Kasher on Tue, 2025-04-08 13:44
Going back to Pershing.
Client has divorced last year. She and the husband split the accounts equally. How is the transfer of assets from joint to individual handled? Is this a taxable event and if so how.
TIA
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 14:00
The 1099B was probably for other assets sold, since the sale of money market funds does not generate a cap gain or loss.
If a brokerage account is separated into separate accounts for each divorcee, there is no tax unless shares are sold. The transfer itself is not taxable. Each spouse would end up with half (or whatever % the courts decided) the value and half the basis of any shares.
Permalink Submitted by Geoffrey Kasher on Tue, 2025-04-08 15:06
no equity assets were sold. she just took $$ from the money market.
2 more questions:
Client earned w-2 of about 44k in 2024. She however did have capital gains of over 50k. How are the gains taxed?
Is this also correct? When assets are transferred between spouses or former spouses “incident to a divorce,” the transfer is generally tax-free, meaning no gain or loss is recognized, and the recipient assumes the original owner’s tax basis.
If this is correct, does Pershing need to redo the 1099 showing the capital gain?
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 15:18
The quote is correct, the mere transfer of assets per a divorce settlement is not a taxable event.
But if any of these assets are sold, a 1099B will result. However, there should not normally be a 1099B for a money market fund redemption as there would be for a mutual fund (non MM) sale. If there was, the broker should be asked for an explanation.
Cap gain tax for the client would be taxed at 0% up approximately where the client’s 12% marginal rate ends, then for amounts in excess taxed at 15%.
Permalink Submitted by Geoffrey Kasher on Tue, 2025-04-08 15:21
since the client receieved a 1099 for the capital gains, how is this corrected on the return
Permalink Submitted by Alan - IRA critic on Tue, 2025-04-08 18:28
If the return was filed and omitted the 1099B, an amended return is required. But if the cost basis shown on the 1099B is the same as the proceeds, there will not be any gain or loss and no need to amend the return. The answer depends on what is shown on the 1099B as the cost basis.